Right, here's the issue and I'm sure its well known, but I just can't see a logical reason for it....
Why does a single guy with his own house have to pay accomodation charges, whereas a married guy in the same position does not?
Both claim get-you-home milage as is allowed, yet singly has to pay accommodation charge? I have been in long enough to realise there are many 'unfair' allowances etc, but what is the specific reason behind this particular discrepancy?
Why does a single guy with his own house have to pay accomodation charges, whereas a married guy in the same position does not?
Both claim get-you-home milage as is allowed, yet singly has to pay accommodation charge? I have been in long enough to realise there are many 'unfair' allowances etc, but what is the specific reason behind this particular discrepancy?